And, we need, not only empowerment but first, we have to be made the sons of God. The gift is for edification of the body (when followed by interpretation) whereas tongues which are evidentiary and personal are for self-edification. Interpretation of tongues is a supernatural enablement wherein the empowered is able to give forth an understanding of what was spoken in tongues EVEN THOUGH NEITHER THE SPEAKER NOR THE INTERPRETER KNOW THE LANGUAGE NATURALLY.
Aramaic was not unknown to Christ, but was, in fact, his native language, so Christ speaking in Aramaic does not qualify as him speaking in tongues. then said in their language i say unto you arise.he spoke in tounges here to heal the sick.
Did Jesus speak in tongues? • RHAPSODY OF REALITIES, Tags Blessed bliss divinity Faith glorious greatness joy kingdom lights mindset peace Speaking in tongues victory, RHAPSODY OF REALITIES THURSDAY 22ND OCTOBER. In a very interesting fact everyone should turn there bible to Matt. Your NASB uses the term Gentiles. The bible says, “He gives the Holy Spirit to them that obey him.
Now, before that prophesy, the Spirit was only given to certain people.
So, though he had the Holy Spirit, the Holy Spirit had not been sent to carry out his full ministry and so when he came to carry out his full ministry, the sign of his full presence in the earth had to be given to us and speaking in tongues is that sign. 14. There are occasions (like in Acts 2) where a speaker in tongues will speak in a language the speaker does not know (otherwise it would not be tongues) but some hearer does. Jesus said himself that "the Father and I are one" in John 10:30. 1 Corinthians 14 says, “He that speaketh in an unknown tongue edifieth himself; but he that prophesieth edifieth the church” [1 Corinthians 14:4]. Jesus said, “I will pray the father;” he said, “when I go to heaven I will pray the father and He shall send you another comforter, even the spirit of truth” [John 14: 16-17], talking about the Holy Spirit. Thank you so much for ALL your insights... Been very helpful. Heathens are not trying to speak in tongues but to effect spiritual results through their own known languages. I was answering multiple things here seeing how others have given there view that Jesus DID speak in tongues. There are two important reasons. Surely you understand that Jesus did not write the gospels--Matthew, Mark, Luke and John did. This is an interesting question. Anonymous,I wish I knew who you were, but Iet me respond to your comment as best I can not knowing anything about you or where you're coming from.The "gift" of tongues is a different thing than tongues coming as a result of being filled with the Spirit.
I say unto you arise. 1 Corinthians 13:1-13 ESV / 8 helpful votes Helpful Not Helpful. In those cases interpretation is not necessary because the natural capacities of language are capable of knowing what was said. Where did He know from? He said to her Talitha cumi which is being interpreted. Top Answer. #4: Speaking in tongues is prayer, praise, and self-edification. What is shared here is Informed directly or by implication from the scriptures and hopefully requires little else to make its points.
The difference with your interpretation that Jesus was talking about prayer like the rosary, and mine which is what the word actually says is that tongues is unknown to the speaker and listener.
Not even the Prophets of Old had this and there is a reason for that. not just in him. He is God.2.
Jesus was more holy than anyone and he never spoke in tongues. People argue that Paul was the one who taught about speaking in tongues as a babbling language because he spoke of "...speaking in the language of men and angels..." but where does that say "babbling?" Hello sml, welcome to Sounds.Jesus, at that point, spoke in Aramaic, which was the common language of the Galilee. Where did He know from? So as Jesus told his disciples don't pray in this babbling nonsense. Not even the Prophets of Old had this and there is a reason for that. #3 has some merit. The KJV has used the term "vain repetitions" as its definition for the Greek but if you look the word up in its original written form (Greek) you will find that the word does mean babble, etc. We have a copy of a copies copy. Jesus said that in His Name they will speak in new tongues. Don't use replacement theology to make things fit, use these scriptures as they were intended to be right from the get go.
I think Jesus didn't speak in tongues. So, always remember Jesus occupied a very different class. So when you look into the history of the religions of the time Christ walked you can see what he meant. My KJV uses the term Heathens. So, we need to speak in tongues. The bible says [that] they knew He never learned, and yet, He had all information because He was the embodiment of all knowledge [John 7:15]. So, always remember Jesus occupied a very different class.
It was not given to Jesus nor to the prophets of old, because it was to be a sign of the fulfillment of the prophesy of the Holy Spirit’s coming, and he hadn’t come. What is driving that? and the place where he was crucified at must have been a moutain named after tongues....? If you continue to use this site we will assume that you are happy with it. If I speak in the tongues of men and of angels, but … Back to the point, the Phoenicians are a group of Gentiles I mean the church of Corinth was a Gentile church to begin with and they were all messed up. May 12, 2020
"(John11:33)this shows that He spoke in tongues. Let us use your NASB and read it again.
Paul says that the one who speaks in a tongue “speaks not to men but to God” (1 Cor.
We receive the Holy Spirit because He is the one to make us children of God. The new testement doesn"t say he spoke in tongues. there is proof int the bible that jesus did speak in tounges.a few times jesus went away to rest there i belive he spoke in tounges to pray to the father.3 accounts i found he spoke in tounges 2 to heal the sick, 1 before he died on the cross.these are found in mark.-------------------mark 5:41And he took the damsel by the hand, and said unto her, Talitha cumi; which is, being interpreted, Damsel, I say unto thee, arise.-----------------------------------------------------------------he did not speak there language it had to be interpreted so he spoke in tounges. Please read more carefully before you offer any comments in the future. You have entered an incorrect email address! Jesus did NOT speak in tongues, espacially this baby language that people today believe is something from G-d.
affirmationtrainorg How Can I Overcome Depression And A Broken Spirit. Tongues were clearly God's idea, meant by him for blessing those willing to practice them. This site uses Akismet to reduce spam.
What do you think? Tongues of men are those languages spoken by the different nations of men, tongues of angels is that language spoken by angels. We are sons of God but not could equal with God.
The first one is that speaking in tongues was reserved for the New Testament. Actually I take that back, the church fathers talk about a cult group that actually acts just like Pentecostals today! 2010-10-31 14:23:30 2010-10-31 14:23:30. Paul specifically says that what a tongue speaker says is between him and God (1 Corinthians 14:2) and that the tongue speaker has no idea of what he is saying (1 Corinthians 14:14).You obviously do not accept tongues, but I see nothing in your disavowal that has anything to do with what is actually said in the scriptures.
"NOW lets read it in the original way...When ye pray, DO NOT BABBLE or SPEAK WITHOUT THINKING or SPEAK ESTATIC LANGUAGES!!!! Answer. Various tongues means exactly that, various tongues or languages!
So, we need to speak in tongues.
Lets jump to Paul now.
Hello Calliope, welcome to the Sound.Great name. So, there is a difference between us – how we had to receive Holy Spirit and how Jesus had to receive the Holy Spirit.
Answer: Okay. The bible says, “He gives the Holy Spirit to them that obey him. You've never wondered who these people were? Click here to download your free gift. What is the difference between tongue, language and angelic language? Too often I have witnessed false tongues within the church, which discredits this special gift. I suppose an argument could be made that it would be impossible for Jesus to speak in tongues, because in Spirit no language was unknown to him. Ok so it's a language that's between you and G-d that the speaker has no clue as to what he is saying?
I think it is worse blaspheming against the Holy Spirit.
(14:2)For if I pray in a tongue, my spirit prays, but my mind is unfruitful. The Bible does not mention Jesus speaking in tongues..This first occurred on the day of Pentecost 33 C.E., a few weeks after the death of Jesus Christ. So when they translated it to English, the original Aramaic statement had to be preserved but the Greek had to be translated to English. He, As far as his public ministry goes, we have no recorded incidence of Jesus ever speaking in tongues. Jesus did the same thing when he "sighed". If "groanings" are praying in tongues as many believe, then it is likely Jesus also prayed in the Spirit. ); including the baptism of the Holy Spirit with evidence of speaking in tongues.4. If you want to believe it, you can, but I see no warrant scripturally for you to do so. I thank you for deleting my other post...I figured it was to much.
They never knew Jesus to go to any school, and yet, He knew all things. It is for them to know that the Holy Spirit has come to begin His ministry, and He is here. If someone claimed tongues were of the Devil, while knowing in their heart that they were manifested by the Holy Spirit, then you would have the proper application of blasphemy of the Holy Spirit. What sign is it? Didn't Jesus himself attack the money changers for bringing things into His house that didn't belong?
What language did the shepherds hear when they were told of the birth of the Savior?
So now lets see what Jesus said in the verse:Matthew 6:7 "But when ye pray, use not vain repetitions, as the heathen do: for they think that they shall be heard for their much speaking. He didn’t require to build; no, He didn’t need that. It doesn't! 1 Comment
But I have a question, Can we say that ” Eli Eli Eli lamasabactni” is a known tongue…? I submit the idea that there are 2 things occurring.1: He rejoiced in The Spirit( that's the literal translation in the Greek text. Nor did Jesus ever teach of the need to do so. Copyright 2020. "Various kinds of tongues" which means what?
He walked on water, raised the dead, translated from one place to another...He was all God and all man.5. It is the language that God provided for us to do that.
and every time he spoke where it had to be interpreted miracles happened. They were not made Sons of God in the Old Testament; they couldn’t have, because Jesus had not come. I agree with you but we just seem to have a discrepancies on one verse. Now, I will read to you from 1 Corinthians 14 from verse 21: “In the law it is written, With men of other tongues and other lips will I speak unto this people; and yet for all that will they not hear me, saith the Lord. Anonymous,You obviously do not understand the nature of tongues.
The original gospel was wrote in Aramaic and there are some words in Greek that just dont translate perfectly.